Project Management Professional Test Answers
·
Question Set 1
Total
Questions: 10 + 10 + 25 + 10 + 11 + 10 + 26 + 15 = 117
1. Your developer has provided u with an estimate based on the
“cost per line of code”.
What type of estimate did the developer use to provide this
information?
A. Parametric
estimating.
B. Bottom-up- estimating.
C. Analogues estimating.
D. PERTestmating .
2. A definitive estimate is:
A. Top-down estimating.
B. Created during initiation.
C. Within a range of -10% to +25%
of actual.
D. The most expensive to
create.
3. all of the following are inputs to the cross-budgeting
process expect?
A. cost estimate.
B. project schedule.
C. risk management plan.
Deactivate duration
estimates.
4. Analogues estimating is a tool technique used in both Time
and Cost management
process. What is the best description of how analogues
estimating is performed?
A. by-buttom-up estimating
techniques.
B. obtaining management option’s
of the estimate of each task.
C. by-top-down estimating techniques.
D. based on historical costs.
5. Cost budgeting is defined as
A. the estimated total cost of the
Project when done.
B. allocating the cost estimates to the individual work items.
C. developing estimates of the
cost of the resources needed to complete project activities.
D. the sum of the approved cost
estimates.
6. Due to recent company downsizing u can only authorize 1 of
the 2 projects u really
planed to complete this year. You have decided to select the
project with the NPV of $95k
and proceed to cancel the other project which had an NPV of
$37k what are the
opportunity costs associated with this new decision?
A. $37k
B. $95k
C. $123k
D. $58k
7. Analogues estimating is a form of
A. earned value.
B. expert judgment.
C. cost planning
D. parametric modeling.
8. Two projects have exactly the same pay back period but
project A has a smaller IRR
than project B.You should choose
A. project A.
B. project B
C. there is no difference
D. there is not enough information
available
9. The expected accuracy level of estimates during the
initiation phase of project should
be:
A. -25% to +75%
B. -10% to +25%
C. -35%to +75%
D. -10%to +10%
10. Analogues estimating is most accurate when:
A. previous projects are similar in fact not just appearance.
B. there is a relationship between
the cost being estimated and known parameter.
C. the historical information used
to develop the model is accurate.
D. work items are very small.
1. Should historical information be used during resource
planning?
A. no, since there is rarely any
correlation between resource expections on one project when
compared to another.
B. Yes, as historical information is available can provide insight
into what type of resources were
required on previous projects of similar nature.
C. No, since historical
information is usally misleading,given the cost of resources have
undoubedtly changed since the
complition of the prior project.
D.Yes ,since historical
information can be easily adjusted to accurately determined current project
costs.
2. Analogus estimating is a :
A.”bottum-up” estimating
technique.
B.”drop-down” estimating technique.
C. more costly and more
accuratelyestimating technique.
D. technique used when you have no
subject matter experts available.
3. Cost estimates:
A. are usally presented at a
detailed level.
B. can be presented in summary of detail.
C. are summarized for senior
management.
D. are provided in detail for
senior management.
4. In cost monitoring, the s-curve depicts the relation
between:
A. Schedule complition and time.
B. Cumulatives value and time.
C. Schedule complition and value
resources.
D. resources and time
5. Inorder to produce a cost base line,the project manager
requires
A. Work packages,work breakdown
structure and project schedule
B. cost estimates,work breakdown structure and the project schedule.
C. cost estimates, work packages
`and project schedule.
D. cost estimates ,work packages
and work breakdown structure.
6. Which of the following is an indirect cost?
A. Units of Production.
B. Lights in the Project War Room.
C. Tax cost of Salary of project
developers.
D. Paper purchased by the project.
7. Which of the following method is not a depreciation method ?
A. Units of production.
B. Some of year’s digits
C. Declining balance
D. Straight line
8. An ordre of magnitude estimate is not also known as
A. a control estimate.
B. a ball park estimate.
C. a conceptual estimate
D. a prelimnary estimate.
9. When the expected cash flow s –curve is above the cost performance
base line the
project manager should
A. investigate the varience to determine if corrective reaction is
required.
B. bring the situation to the
attention of senior management for action.
C. adjust the cost baseline to
reflect the actual cost to this point.
D. do nothing since the project is
performing above plan.
10. Cost estimates may also be expressed in hours days etc, as
long as
A. it does not result in a misstatement of project cost.
B. the program manager agrees.
C. the unit of measure is consistent
within the project.
D. the project manager agrees.
1. What is the Delphi technique?
A. A simulation technique.
B. A mathematical analysis.
C. A constrained optimization
method.
D. A consensuas technique.
2.What is the process of splitting a deliverable into smaller
more manageable parts called?
A. Scope definition.
B. Decomposition.
C. Activity definition.
D.Activity lists.
3.The WBS helps the team of FOCUS!It is an excellent tool for
communications and the
basic for developing realistic estimates.You can best describe
a WBS as a tool for the
tracking of the:
A. the schedule
B .assigned resources
C. project costs.
D. project scope.
4.The WBS is
A. a description of the product
component and subcomponents.
B. a breakdown of the project
reporting structure.
C. a structure that defines the scope baseline for the project.
D. a structure that defines work
assignments by organizations.
5.You and several of your key team leader are really struggling
with estimating the overall
cost of the project.The most probable cause for this estimating
diffculty can be
contributed to:
A. initial poor scope definition
B. lack of required resources.
C. insufficent funds.
D. problems with the overall
schedule.
6. Which statement is true?
A. ideally one should optimize the
schedule once.
B. creating a Gantt chatt should
only be done once when bidding on the project.
C. Ideally the base line should only be done once in a project.
D. ideally constraint dates should
be done once in a project.
7. Which factors should you consider when adding a resource to
your project team?
A. The impact the resource will
have on the cost of the system
B. The impact the resource will
have on the duration of the system
C. The impact the resource will
have on the histogram.
D. Whether the resource is available, and if it will have impact on
the cost and duration of the
system
8. The Delphi method is best suited for:
A. Decision-making
B. Simulation models
C. Quality improvement
D. Team discussions
9. You are on the project selection team and must decide on
only one project to approve.
Of the following 2 possible project which would you select and
why?
Calgary: payback period is 12 months ,and NPV is 350
Toronto: payback period is 24 months, and NPV is 400
A. project Toronto because because
the NPV is the highest number.
B. project Calgary because the
payback period is shorter than the project Toronto.
C. Can not be determined based on the information provided.
D. project Calgary because the NPV
is positive and the payback period is sooner than Toronto.
10. There are two types of decision model,comparative and
constrained that can be used
for the project selection during the initiation process.Of the
following decision model
examples, which one are categorized as benefit measurement or
scoring/ rating models?
A. Criteria profiling weighted
factor,q shorting,Delphi technique,logical frame work analysis, and
linear program programming.
B logical frame work analysis and
linear program programming.
C. logical frame work
analysis,criteria profiling,weighted factor,Q shorting and Delphi technique.
D. Criteria profiling, weighted factor,Q shorting,and Delphi
technique?
11. You are reviewing several feasiblity reports.One report
shows a benefit cost ratio of
2.1.This means:
A. The costs are 2.1 times the
benefits.
B. The profit is 2.1 times the
costs
C. The payback is 2.1 times the costs.
D. The cost is 2.1 times the
profit.
12. A project has payback period of 1 and a half of years. What
does that mean?
A. It will take the project one
and half years before they start to incur costs.
B. The project will be complited
in less than 2 years.
C.The company will receive the
profits for the first one and half years of the project.
D. It will take the project one and half years to cover the
investment and start generating revenue.
13. Your technical team leader who you highly respect has
identified a design error that
will mostly likely interfere with the meeting documented
technical performance objectives.
The best action to take is to:
A . Decrease the performance value
to equal the assessed value.
B. Reduce the overall technical
complexity of the project.
C. Increase the spacified value to
set a new performance goal.
D. Develop alternative solutions to the problem.
14. You are currently working for York Automobile,a market leader
in manufacturing cars.
Due to a shortage in petroleum based fuel as well as advent of
new technology, the
company has decided to venture into producing electrically
powered cars.This project will
be initiated due to a :
A. Market demand
B. Business need
C. Technological advancement.
D. Social need.
15. First thing Tuesday morning ,one of your team member drops
into your office looking
very thrilled. He eagerly tells you he is adding extra
functionality to the project without
imparting the cost the schedule. As the project manager your
first step should be:
A. Understand what the new functionality will add to the project and
then action accordingly.
B.Implement change control
processes to track the change.
C.Inform the customer of the
change to the scope.
D.Notify the functional manager
that scope changes are not approved.
16.Linear programming is an example of what type of project
selection criterion?
A. Constrained optimization.
B. Comparative apporch.
C. Benefit measurement.
D. Simulation.
17. The “rolling wave” or “moving window” advocates the use of
WBS decomposition and
is used most frequently in the _____________ process.
A. Scope verification.
B. Scope planning.
C. Scope definition
D. Scope reporting.
18. The engineering department has flagged a concern about the
expensive interface
cards recommended to purchase for your switch cutover project.
They believe they can
find a less expensive but acceptable card and submit a `change
request to do necessary
research.Their request is the result of:
A. Input from a contractor that
can supply the same interface card at a cheaper price.
B. An error or omission in
defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in
defining the scope of the project.
D. a value-adding change.
19. You are conducting a product analysis in scope planning by
prioritizing spoken and
unspoken customer wows, wants and needs; translating these
needs into technical
characteristics and specification to build and deliver a
quality product or service by
focusing everybody toward customer satisfaction. This process
is called :
A. Analysis system engineering .
B.Value engineering.
C. Quality function development.
D. Function analysis.
20. Out puts from the initiation process includes:
A. project manager assigned
,project character, and product description.
B. constraints, assumptions, and
product description.
C. Project character ,Constraints, and assumptions.
D.scope statement, project manager
identified, and product description.
21. The scope management process involves all of the following
expects:
A. Continuous validations to
ensure all the work is completed.
B. Saying no to work not included
in the project or not part of the project character.
C. Giving the customer more than expected.
D. Controlling what is and what is
not in the project.
22. As the project manager you will be required to report
periodically to upper
management on the progress of the project. What item below will
you require to report
your progress as the basis for the budget ,schedule ,resource
allocation and scope
definition.
A. Precedence diagramming method.
B. project character.
C. Work breakdown schedule.
D. Project management plan.
23.Calling on subject matter experts for the judgment,would be,
used in which of the
following scope management process?
A. Initiation
B. Planning
C. Definition
D. Change control.
24. You have negotiated a major deliverable with a contractor
several of your colleagues
have utilized in the past without problems. Its is critical the
contactor meet an August 15th
deliverable.this is an example of (n):
A. Objective
B. Goal
C. Constraint.
D. Assumption.
25. All of the following are tools for the scope verification
expects:
A. product reviews.
B. audit.
C. product analysis.
D.walk-throughs.
1. The WBS can be used
for which of the followings?
A) Communicating with the customers
B) Showing calendar
dates for each task
C) Showing the
functional manager for each team member
D) Showing the
business need for the project
2. Scope Verification
is
A) Performed at the
end of project planning
B) Essentially same as
quality control
C) Primarily concerned with acceptance of the work results
D) Primarily concerned
with correctness of the work results
3. The process of
creating a WBS results in
A) A project schedule
B) Team buy-in
C) A project
completion date
D) A list of risks
4. Which of the
following DOES NOT describe how far each element in WBS should be broken
down
A) Can be completed in
under 80 hours.
B) Can not be
logically subdivided further
C) Is done by one person
D) Can
be realistically estimated
5. The outputs of
scope change control are
A) Scope statement,
lessons learnt and inspection
B) Work results, scope
changes and product documentation
C) Scope changes, corrective action and lessons learnt
D) Scope changes,
product documentation and corrective action
6. The first step in
WBS creation is
A) Determine cost and duration of each project deliverable
B) Identify major
deliverables of the project
C) Identify components
of each deliverable of the project
D) Determine the key
tasks to be performed
7. Work package is a
A) Element at the lowest level of WBS
B) Task with unique
identifier
C) Required level of
reporting
D) Task
that can be assigned to only one person
8. Going from Level 3
to Level 4 in the work breakdown structure can result in:
A) Less estimating
accuracy
B) Better control of the project
C) Lower status
reporting costs
D) A greater
likelihood that something will fall through the cracks
9. A project manager
believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value
for the customer. The
project manager should:
A) Change the scope
baseline
B) Prepare a variance
report
C) Discuss it in the change control board
D) Change the
project’s objectives
10. Inspection is used
for both Scope Verification and Quality Control. But first deals with --- of
the work while second
deals with --- of the product
A) Testing, quality
B) Correctness,
acceptance
C) Inspection, testing
D) Acceptance, correctness
1. A Project Charter
includes
A) Precedence
diagramming methods
B) Task estimates
C) Detailed resource
estimates
D) The business need for the project
2. The customer wants
to make a major change in the project scope when project is mostly
complete. The project
manager should.
A) Make the change
B) Inform the customer of the impact of the change
C) Refuse the change
D) Complain to
management
3. The key reason to
use a WBS is to
A) Organize the work
B) Prevent work from
slipping through the cracks
C) Provide a basis for
estimating the project
D) All of the above
4. What does having a
project charter do for the project managers?
A) Describes the
details of what needs to be done
B) Describes the names
of all team members
C) Gives the project manager authority
D) Describes the
project's history
5. The subdivision of
project deliverables into smaller components is called
A) Concept definition
B) Flow charting
C) Scope definition
D) Scope verification
6. In which phase
feasibility studies performed
A) Initiation
B) Planning
C) Executing
D) Closing
7. You are asked to
take over a project with lot of pending scope change requests. To assess the
change impact, you
should get hold of
A) Scope statement
B) WBS
C) Project Plan
D) Scope Management
Plan
8. A matrix
organization begins a new project. Project manager knows that the team is more
responsive to their functional
managers than to PM. To overcome this, PM decides to prepare
A) Project plan
B) Project charter
C) Scope statement
D) Human resource
management plan
9. Which of the
following is a good objective?
A) Construct a
building
B) Implement a new
telecommunication system
C) Lay 200 bricks by tomorrow
D) Develop a program
for proving network maintenance
10. Scope changes on
project are inevitable, however, scope changes can be minimized by:
A) Spending more time
developing the scope baseline
B) Spending more time
analyzing the estimates
C) Asking the sponsor to actively participate in the planning
D) A and B
11. A project manager
believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value
for the customer. The
project manager should:
A) Change the scope
baseline
B) Prepare a variance
report
C) Call a meeting of the change control board
D) Change the
project’s objectives
E) Postpone the
modification until a separate enhancement project is funded after this
project is completed according to the original
baseline.
1. Which of the following is not a
major process of Project Procurement Management?
a) Solicitation Planning
b) Source Selection
c) Contract Administration
d) Information Distribution
2. The process of identifying
which project needs can be best met by procuring products or
services outside the project
organization is called ________________
a) Needs Identification
b) Procurement Planning
c) Requirement Analysis
d) None of the above
3. The ‘Product Description’ is
generally broader than a ‘Statement of Work’. This statement
a) Is True
b) Is False
c) Is Ambiguous
4. A contract that involves
payment to the seller for its actual costs is called a
a) Fixed Price Contract
b) Cost Reimbursable Contract
c) Unit Price Contract
d) Partnership
5. Which of the following is/are
input(s) for Solicitation Planning
a) Procurement Management Plan
b) Statement(s) of Work
c) Standard Forms
d) Both A and B.
6. Which of the following is not a
Tool and Technique for Source Selection.
a) Contract Negotiation
b) Weighting System
c) Evaluation Criteria
d) Independent Estimates
7. Which of the following is not
an input to Contract Administration.
a) Work Result
b) Change Requests
c) Seller Invoices
d) All of them are inputs to Contract Administration.
8. ____________________ involves
clarification and mutual agreement on the structure and
requirements of the contract prior
to the signing of the contract.
a) Screening System
b) Evaluation Criteria
c) Contract Negotiation
d) Weighting System
9. Make or Buy Analysis is a Tool
and Technique for
a) Procurement Planning
b) Solicitation Planning
c) Solicitation
d) Source selection
10. The process of obtaining
quotations, bids, offers or proposals as appropriate is called
a) Procurement Planning
b) Solicitation Planning
c) Solicitation
d) Source Selection
Q1. On his first project
assignment as the project manager, the project manager encounters
disagreements among highly
technical team members. How would the project manager BEST
deal with the conflict?
A) He should listen to the
differences of opinions, determine what is the best choice and
implement that choice.
B) He should postpone further
discussions, meet with each individual, and determine the best
approach.
C) He should listen to the differences of opinions, encourage logical
discussions, and facilitate
an agreement.
D) He should help the team focus
on agreeable aspects of their opinions and build unity by
using relaxation techniques and
common focus team building.
Q2. Giving a team member a corner
office is different than giving him health benefits because a
corner office is a(n):
A) Perquisite
B) Fringe benefit
C) use of the expectancy theory.
D) example of formal power.
Q3. Team members are arguing about
the location of specification limits on a control chart. The
discussion is becoming heated when
the project manager walks in and says, "It seems that the
real problem here is that we do
not have enough information about the customer's specifications.
Let'sô€€€ " This is an
example of:
A) asserting the project manager's
authority
B) problem solving
C) compromising.
D) withdrawal.
Q4. During project planning in a
matrix organization, the project manager determines that
additional human resources are
needed. From whom would he request these resources?
A) Project manager
B) Functional manager
C) Team
D) Project sponsor
Q5. You have a firm fixed price
contract with a clause stating that all changes in the scope of
work must be written. One of your
team members verbally instructed the seller to add a change
that resulted in a 100% task
overrun. Under this situation, what conflict management strategy
should you use (as the project
manager) with the team member?
A) Punishment
B) Problem solving
C) Negotiating
D) Withdrawal
Q6. While creating the agenda for
a status meeting with the team, a project manager receives
input from one team member that an
item should be added. Another team member says the
team is not ready to resolve the
item during the meeting. After much discussion, the project
manager decides to put the item on
the agenda as an initial discussion item only. Which conflict
resolution technique is the
project manager using?
A) Compromise
B) Smoothing
C) Forcing
D) Withdrawal
Q7. A project has several teams.
Team C has missed several deadlines in the past. This has
caused team D to have to crash the
critical path several times. As the project leader for team D,
you should meet with the:
A) manager of team D.
B) project manager alone.
C) project manager and management.
D) project manager and the team C leader.
Q8. A project manager must publish
a project schedule. Activities, start/end times and resources
are identified. What should the
project manager do next?
A) Distribute the project schedule
according to the communications plan
B) Confirm the availability of the resources
C) Refine the project plan to
reflect more accurate costing information
D) Publish a Gantt chart
illustrating the timeline
Q9. What leadership style should
you employ during the first two weeks of project planning?
A) Coaching
B) Directing
C) Supporting
D) Facilitating
Q10. The project team is working
on an important and complex project that requires a lot of
coordination. Under these
circumstances, the BEST strategy is to:
A) have a war room.
B) hire a contractor.
C) hold more meetings to get the
word out.
D) gain extra assistance from
management.
Q11. The engineering resource
group, a matrixed organization of which a project manager's
project team is a part, has a
policy of no bonus for project work. The project manager's current
project has an aggressive timeline
and a difficult technical obstacle to overcome. A new product
offering is dependent on this
project's success in the current timeline. The project manager has
heard grumbling from his team
about the fact that they cannot be rewarded for their effort. What
is the FIRST thing the project
manager should do?
A) The project manager should
evaluate if other team members from another department can
help with the project.
B) The project manager should talk to management about changing the
bonus policy or allow
this project to have its own bonus system to reduce risk on his
project.
C) The project manager should
negotiate a less aggressive schedule from the client.
D) The project manager should talk
with the team about the importance of getting this done on
time and explain the company
policy.
Q12. You are a project manager
leading a cross-functional project team in a weak matrix
environment. None of your project
team members report to you functionally and you do not have
the ability to directly reward
their performance. The project is difficult, involving tight date
constraints and challenging
quality standards. Which of the following types of project
management power will likely be
the MOST effective in this circumstance?
A) Referent
B) Expert
C) Penalty
D) Formal
Q13. Your best programmer is an
independent contractor. Recently, you learned that she is
working on a project in the
evening for one of your competitors. Your BEST course of action is to:
A) Replace her.
B) Get her to sign a nondisclosure agreement.
C) Inform her that you do not
allow your contractors to work with your competition, and ask her
to choose.
D) Limit her access to sensitive
data.
Q14. What is the MOST correct
statement about conflict?
A) The primary source of conflict
is personalities.
B) Conflict can be beneficial.
C) Conflict is best resolved by
smoothing.
D) The best way to prevent
conflict in the procurement process is to make sure the project
manager is not involved with
negotiations.
Q15. A project manager is meeting
with a team member and says, "I know you want to become
involved in meetings with the
customer. Because of your performance on the project so far, I
have rearranged things so you can
become involved with the customer." This is an example of:
A) Team alignment.
B) Reward power.
C) Team building.
D) Constraints.
Q16. While resource planning for
your project, you visited the functional manager of engineering
many times but she refused to
supply resources for the project. First, the excuse was that her
department was too busy. The next
time, the department was undergoing reorganization. This is
causing your project to slip the
schedule. The lack of which of the following is the MOST
probable reason for her lack of
support?
A) Project plan
B) Project charter
C) Resource assignment matrix
D) WBS
Q17. You work in a matrix
organization when a team member comes to you to admit he is having
trouble with his task. Although
not yet in serious trouble, the team member admits he is uncertain
of how to perform part of the work
on the task. He suggests a training class available next week.
Where should the cost of the
training come from?
A) Switch to a trained resource to
avoid the cost
B) The human resource department
budget
C) The team member's functional
department budget
D) The project budget
Q18. A new project manager has
just been assigned a project that is in progress. The project is
two weeks behind schedule. The
team members are about to be distributed to another project
based on original time estimates
provided by the functional manager. What is the FIRST step the
project manager should take?
A) She should first revise the
Gantt chart with new timelines.
B) She should initially contact
the steering committee and begin with a new team.
C) She should first show sympathy
with the current team and delay decision making for another
week.
D) She should check the project plan for contingencies concerning
resources and talk to the
functional manager.
Q19. At the end of a two-year
project, the key stakeholders agree that the project has met all its
goals and objectives outlined in
the project charter and further defined in the scope and statement
of work. The project is within
budget and has finished on time. The management of one of the
functional areas is quite upset
because over half of his staff quit during the project citing long
hours and lack of management
support. What is the MOST correct statement about this project?
A) The project was within budget
and time and achieved its objectives. Upper management is
responsible for providing adequate
resources, and the project manager successfully
managed the project with available
resources.
B) The project should be measured
against how successfully it met its charter. This was not
done during this project.
C)
The project manager did not obtain adequate resources and did not set a
realistic deadline
based
on resources available.
D) The functional manager is
responsible for his staff and obtaining adequate resources to meet
the schedule once it has been set.
The project and project manager achieved all of its goals
set forth in the charter.
Q20. A team member is not
performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in
system development work. There is
no one else available who is better qualified to do the work.
What is the BEST solution for the
project manager?
A) Consult with the functional
manager to determine project completion incentives for the team
member
B) Obtain a new resource more
skilled in development work
C) Arrange for the team member to get training
D) Allocate some of the project
schedule reserve
Q21. The "halo effect"
refers to the tendency to:
A. Promote from within.
B. Hire the best
C. Move people into project management because they are good in
their technical field.
D. Move people into project
management because they have had project management training.
Q22. Which of the following is the
highest point of Maslow's hierarchy?
A. Self-fulfillment
B. Respect
C. Affection
D. Stability
Q23. In which motivation theory do
hygiene factors play a part?
A. Herzberg's
B. McGregor's
C. Theory Y
D. Maslow's hierarchy
Q24. Which motivational theory
says that working conditions, salary and relationships at work do
not improve motivation?
A. Maslow
B. Deming
C. McGregor
D. Herzberg
Q25. In Maslow's hierarchy of
needs, self-actualization means self-fulfillment, growth and:
A. affection.
B. learning.
C. security.
D. stability.
Q26. Which motivational theory
uses the concept of theory Y?
A. Maslow
B. Deming
C. McGregor
D. Herzberg
1. Once Signed a contract is
legally binding unless
a) One party is unwilling to
perform
b) One party is unable to finance
his part of the work
c) It is in violation of
applicable law
d) It is declared void and null by one party
2. Although they may have variety
of side effects, the primary objective of incentive clause in a
contract is to
a) Reduce costs for the buyer
b) Help the contractor control
costs
c) Help bring the contractor’s objective in line with that of the
buyer
d) Reduce risk for the contractor
by shifting risk to the buyer
3. With a clear Scope of Work, a
contractor completes work as specified, but the buyer is not
pleased with the results. The
contract is considered to be:
a) Incomplete because the buyer is not pleased
b) Incomplete because the specs
were incorrect
c) Complete because the contractor
is satisfied
d) Complete because the contractor
met the terms and conditions of the contract.
4. When do all of the processes of
Procurement Planning, Solicitation Planning, Solicitation,
Source Selection, Contract
Administration and Contract Close-out are followed
a) When the project obtains
product and services from outside the performing organization.
b) When the project does not
obtain product and services from outside the performing
organization.
c) All of the processes are always followed for Project Procurement
management
d) The processes are not required
most of the time.
5. The primary objective of
negotiations is to
a) Get the most from the other
side
b) Protect the relationship
c) Be the winner
d) Define the objective up front and stick with them
6. The daily lease cost for an
item is $230. To purchase the item the investment cost id $1000
and the daily cost is $30. When
should you go for purchasing the item
a) When the item is needed for
more than 3 days
b) When the item is needed for
more than 5 days
c) When the item is needed for more than 6 days
d) For both the cases b & c.
7. Of different forms of
Contracts, which one puts the buyer at highest risk that the cost will
increase
a) Cost Reimbursable
b) Time and Material
c) Fixed Price
d) Purchase Order
8. Of different forms of
Contracts, which one is unilateral (signed by one party)
a) Cost Reimbursable
b) Time and Material
c) Fixed Price
d) Purchase Order
9. Given are the statistics for a
Project. Target Cost = $220,000; Target Fee = $35,000; Target
Price = $255, 000; Sharing Ratio =
80/20; Actual Cost = $200,000. Calculate the Fee and
Final Price for the project
a) Fee = $35,000, Final Price =
$235,000
b) Fee = $39,000, Final Price =
$239,000
c) Fee = $39,000, Final Price =
$255,000
d) Fee = $55,000, Final Price = $255,000
10. Given are the statistics for a
Project. Target Cost = $150,000; Target Fee = $30,000; Target
Price = $180,000; Sharing Ratio =
60/40; Ceiling Price = $200,000; Actual Cost = $210,000.
Calculate the Fee and the Final
Price for the project
a) Fee = $30,000, Final Price =
$210,000
b) Fee = $30,000, Final Price =
$200, 000
c) Fee = $6,000, Final Price = $200, 000
d) Fee = $6,000, Final Price =
$240,000
11. Which of the following must be
present to have a contract
a) A detailed scope of work
b) Acceptance
c) The address of the seller
d) Various legal words
12. Which of the following best
describes the project manager’s role during the contracting
process
a) They are not involved
b) They should try to be involved
c) They supply an understanding of
the risks of the project
d) They tell the contracts manager
how they want the contracting process to be handled
13. A key role of the project
manager during negotiations is to
a) Protect the relationship
between buyer and seller
b) Make sure their side wins
c) Make sure they get all risks
assigned to the other side
d) Make sure that everyone receives a communication plan
14. In a fixed price contract, the
fee or profit is
a) Unknown
b) Part of the negotiation
involved in paying every invoice
c) Applied as a line item to every
invoice
d) Determined with the other party at the end of the project
15. Which of the following is an
advantage of centralized contracting
a) Easier access to contracting expertise
b) Increased company expertise in
contracting
c) More loyalty to the project
d) No home for the contracts personnel
Question Set 2
Total
Questions: 200
1. During communication the use of __________ is a means of
giving feedback to the
speaker by rephrasing the speaker’s word to ensure that there is
a good understanding of
the message being sent.
A. active listening.
B. filtering .
C. graphics.
D. visual ,audio ,and tactile.
2. In communication , the receiver
filter messages based on all but which of the following?
A. Culture.
B. Semantics.
C. Language.
D. Distance.
3. According to the PMP code of professional conduct , which of
the following is a
responsibility to the profession?
A. Adhere to the candidate /certificate professional practice.
B. Conflict of interest situations
and other prohibited professional conduct.
C. Quallifications, experience
performance of professional services.
D. Refrain from accepting
inappropriate gifts ,payment or other compensation for personal gain.
4. When analyzing risks using the certainty vs uncertainty
spectrum,the term “unknownunknown
is best described as ___________ .
A. at the extreme end of the
uncertainty spectrum. They will definitely affect you, although you
have no control over them.
B. items or situations whose existence can not imazine (“ who knew
?”).
C. items that will effect you
,although you are not able to predict how or how much they will effect
you?
D. rework.
5. You are attending a meeting with your purchasing department
to explain the recent
approved scope change and assist in negotiating the changes
required to the contract.
The vendor representative states up front t the meeting ,that
all negotiations must be
Complited by 2.30pm to allow him to catch his flight
considering the current city traffic
issues. What kind of negotiation technique is this?
A. Fait acomplie .
B. Dead line.
C. Unreasonable.
D. Delayed.
6. Of the following needs, which one is ranked highest
according to Maslow’s hierarchy of
needs?
A. phycological satisfaction.
B. attainment of survival
C. esteem.
D. need for association.
7. What are the steps you should take formally to stop the
project?
A. generating ,gathering and
disseminating information to formalize the phase or project
complition.
B. collecting and disseminating
performance information.
C. completing and settling conracts,
including resolution of any open items.
D. both A and C
8. Defining the scope of the project is one of the initial
steps in the PM process. Defining
project scope well is crucial to the success of the project as
it establishes a contract
between the project client and the pm. For some pm’s this is a
legal contract. For others it
is less formal. In either case it is an agreement to which the
project client and PM both
making a commitment. Which of the following is the most
applicable to a scope
statement?
A. It provides a document basis for making future project decision
and for developing a common
understanding of the project scope among stake holder.
B. Scope statement and the SOW are
synonymous.
C. Project justification and
project objectives are not included or referenced in the scope
statements.
D. Once written, the scope
statement should never be revised.
9. Collocation can mean that :
A. all team members are moved to
central physical location during the later stages of project
implementation.
B. most team members are moved to a central physical location for
the life of the project.
C. A “war room” is established
where team members and stake holder can meet periodically.
D. individual with different
interests, backgrounds, and expertise are transformed into an
integrated and effective work
unit.
10. What is the document that gives the PM the authority to
apply organizational
resources?
A. WBS
B. project definition document.
C. project charter.
D. statements of work.
11. The communication expediter of a project is :
A. the MIS subject matter expert .
B. a project manager.
C. a data base manager.
D. a project assistant.
12. When entering into a contract , the objective of the buyer
is to:
A. maximize his degree of risks
while decreasing profit potential.
B. place on the seller the maximum performance risk while
maintaining a degree of incentive for
efficient and economical performance.
C. ensure that the seller is
unable to determine his exart requirements.
D. All of the above.
13. You are reviewing a risk of lists identified by the team
and now need to “categorize”the
risk s which will facilitate the risk monitoring process. Which
of the following risk events
would present the highest risk to the “schedule category” of
risks.
A. Sustantial increase in the cost
of purchased materials.
B. Delays in obtaining required approvals.
C. Contract disputes that generate
back charges.
D. Deffral of the scheduled post
implementation review meeting.
14. The “Tuckman Model “ refers to the 4 stage of the team
development .What is the
correct sequence of stages each team will go through?
A. Forming, Norming, Storming and
performing.
B. Forming , Storming, Norming and performing.
C. Norming, Forming , Stroming and
performing.
D.Storming,Forming,Norming and
performing.
15. An input to staff Acquisition does not include:
A. Staffing management plan.
B. Staffing requirement
C. Staffing pool description.
D. Requirment practices.
16. Pareto diagrams cause and effect diagrams flow charts and
treand analysis are used
in quality:
A. Control.
B. Assurance.
C. Planning.
D. Verification.
17. The main purpose of risk management planning is to create a
plan for dealing with
each high priority risk that you have identified in the various
phase. A good risk
management plan will not contain ____________.
A. a contingency plan to moniter
risk and trigger a predetermined response when a potential risk
is detected.
B. The resources that are needed
for your risk management activity.
C. What information you need to
track and monitor the risk.
D. all of the above.
18. What does the accounting term BCR 1.5 mean?
A. The cost are higher than the
benefits.
B. The profit is 1.5 times the
cost.
C. The payback is 1.5 times the cost.
D. The cost is 1.5 times the
profit.
19. From the “view exhibit” we can state task _____________ is
the furtherest behind
schedule task _________ has the largest budget varience.
A. 3,2
B. 1,2
C. 1,3
D. 1,4
20. From the view “exhibit” button ,which task list contains
the critical list for the path?
A. ABCDEI
B. ABGHIF
C. ABCDEF
D. CDEF
21. You need to define the high level project objectives .Which
of the following technique
is the best method to define the project objectives?
A. Delphi.
B. Earned value.
C. Expert interviews.
D. Cost benefit analysis.
22. Outputs of administrative closure include all of the
following except.
A. Project archives.
B. formal acceptance.
C. lessions learned.
D. performance reports.
23. Your team has created several documents that serve as
historical records for future
projects.This historical documents are archived:
A. throughout the project.
B. before the end of planning.
C. before the end of execution.
D. during closure.
24. Cost estimates may not be express in :
A. Units of currency.
B. Staff hours
C. Staff days.
D. Units of production.
25. Given the following sample of data : 40,20,20,50,70, and
75:What is the mode?
A. 36
B. 20
C. 50
D. 70
26. A product description is used to :
A. define the project scope.
B. improve the accuracy of cost ,
duration and resource estimates.,
C. define the relationship between the product being created and the
business need.
D. outline quantifiable criteria
that define project success.
27. From the “view exhibit “ button, which task has a
favourable cost varience of $250?
A. Task 1
B. Task 2
C. Task 3
D. Task 4
28. A control chart shows that the last 8 frames produced were
all a little less then the
average weight. You know you need to action this because the
control chart violates the:
A. rules of seven
B. rules of eight.
C. Standard deviation rule.
D. 3-sigma rule.
29. Value engineering and analysis is performed to:
A. analyze all the things a
product does, including primary and related function to identify
unnecessary functions that might
drive up cost on a product.
B. obtain management buy into the
project.
C. ensure the team buys into the
project.
D. identify a less costly way of doing the same scope of work.
30. Life circle cost is using in Project Cost Management:
A. to reduce costs.
B. to reduce time.
C. to accumulate all costs.
D. to accumulate all time.
31. From the “view exhibit” button , how many days of free
flaot does activity E have?
A. 12
B. 0
C. 10
D. 7
32. Who orginates the project charter ?
A. The project manager.
B. The project sponcer
C. The client.
D. A manager external to the
project.
33. Product documentation is a input to what process?
A. Scope verification.
B. Performance rating.
C. Risks Analysis.
D. Scope planning.
34. The best approach to conflict resolution is:
A. Withdrawal.
B. Smoothing.
C. Compromising.
D. Confronting.
35. Which of the following activities is completed during scope
verification?
A. Product analysis.
B. Creation of work breakdown
stracture.
C. Performance measurement
D. Inspection
36. Generally speaking an advantage of a fixed price contract
is:
A. the cost risk is higher.
B. the cost risk is lower.
C. there is a medium amount of
risk.
D. the risk is shared by all
parties.
37. A relationship in a activity-on-arrow diagram are(is):
A. finish to start.
B. finish to finish.
C. finish to start, start to
finish, finish to finish or start to start.
D. start to start or start to
finish.
38. your project work was put on hold for 6 weeks due to the
unforeseen backorder of the
hardware equipment. You have confirmed with the supplier the
hardware will be delivered
to the second week of December. In order to keep to the
customer schedule which is the
first priority considerable overtime will be required by the
technical team members during
the upcoming holiday season. You know the technical team was
only working over the
holidays with a skeleton crew .What is the best action to take
to
A. explain to the client that the
backorder was unforeseen and it is now impossible to meet the
original schedule.
B. First, give the employees the option to cancel their vacations
and work the overtime.
C. Meet with the technical team
and profusely apologize , but explain your hands are tied and
they will have to unfortunately
cancel their schedule vacations and work.
D. Arrange to hire contract
employees to work over the holiday.
39. A war room is ________________
A. a required part of every
project.
B. a room to give the project a
physical location.
C. the place where the office is
D. an advantage since all the project information can be located in
one geographic location.
40._____________, a well known motivational theorist , stated
people can’t ascend to the
next level of needs until the levels below have been fulfilled.
A. Maslow.
B. McGregor
C. Herzberg
D. Aldelfers.
41. Look at the following depreciation example : Depriciable
balance is $10,000,expected
useful life is 4 years. Depriciations in the first year under
double declining balance
depreciation is _____________.
A. 2500
B. 4000
C. 5000
D. 10,000
42. There are a number of estimating levels of accuracy , which
one is defind as the
budget estimate?
A. -25% to +75%
B. 5% to 10%
C. -10% to +25%
D. +/-5%
43. The ___________ theory is a method to determine the amount
of risk ,management will
tolerate on a project.
A. Probability analysis.
B. Delphi.
C. Monte carlo
D. Utility.
44. A project manager is working with quality professionals in
the quality assurance
phase of the project. Which of the following activities is
being performed?
A. Quality control.
B. Determining if the right quality standard are being used.
C. Determining what quality
standard should be used.
D. Evaluating quality against the
standard.
45. During an initial meeting to establish a communication plan
with the project stake
holders, your senior project manager distributes photocopies of
sample graphs and
charts.Since you have just completed studying and successfully
writing your PMP
exam,You immediately recognize these graphs and chart from
PMI’s PMBOOK guide.What
do you do in these situation?
A. Approch your senior project manager to ensure he recived
permission from PMI to reproduce
and distribute the graphs and charts.
B. Assume your senior project
manager obtained permission from PMI to reproduce and
distribute the information.
C. Following the meeting ,ensure
that all distributed materials are returned and destroyed.
D. Do nothing since you were only
an attendee at the meeting and nothing to do with preparing
the meeting material.
46. There are 4 people in the project team , and the project
managers add 5 more. How
many channels of communication are there now?
A. 18
B. 40.5
C. 36
D. 9
47. A risk was identified that “Rebecca “ is the only person in
the company that has the
expertise to complete a critical task on your project.Rebecca
advised during the planning
phase that she is scheduled for elective surgery at an unknown
date. If the hospital calls ,
she will go on medical leave for 3 months. Of course the
hospital calls and Rebacca goes
on medical leave. Since the task is on the critical path you
need to acquire a consultant as
soon as possible. To do this ,the project manager
A. Follow the legal requirements setup by the company for using
outside services.
B. Bypass the company procedure
since the task is on the critical path and you don’t have time to
go throw the normal process.
C. Time is of the essence
.Expedite and go directly to your preferred consultant.
D. Ask his or her manager to what
to do/
48. Which of the following items are not considered
accomplishing integrity in project
management?
A. Adhering to an ethical code.
B. Following the PMP code of
professional conduct.
C. Applying standard project
management process.
D.Training to understand how to manager relationships with other
from different cultures.
49.The language of contracts sometime generates
misunderstanding and creates
situations that adversely affect project complition .During the
planning stages a relatively
first and informal method for removing the obstacles to
progress should be planned
for.One such method is to submit the issue in question in to a
impartial third party of
resolution.The process is known as:
A. alternative dispute resolution.
B. problem processing.
C. Steering resolution
D. Mediation litigation
50. Your project you just complited , was the first time your
company ever contracted a 3rd
party vendor to perform some of the project work. As part of
the close out process,you are
documenting the lesion learned. Which of the following is the
contract lesions learned
include?
A. A complete list of the contract
as built drawing.
B. Feedback customer.
C. The procurement process since
this was the first time the company negotiated a contract.
D. Evaluations of what went right and what we could have done better.
51. You are working on a global project that will require
temporary hiring of teams in 4
different countries in 5 months testing phase. A project leader
from one of the country
takes initiative to help acquire these resources by sending you
a list of names that are
obviously related to the project leader.Your first course of
action should be to:
A . Investigate to find out if hiring family is a common practice in
the project leaders country.
B. Ask for the resumes of the
individuals and determine if they are qualified candidates.
C. Ask the project leader to send
additional name of people that are not family members.
D.Thank the leader for their
initiative but let him/her know that you will require the resources
yourself.
52. A contingency plan___________.
A. identifies alternative strategies to be used to ensure project
success if a specified risk event
occurs.
B. is a work around.
C. is part of the management
reserve
D. is the same as a fallback plan.
53. All of the following are examples of theory X assumptions
with the exception of:
A. employees avoid work.
B. employees need constant
direction.
C. employees are self-directed.
D. employees are self-centered.
54. You have determined the duration for your project is 18.5
months with a standard
deviation of 1.2 months. What technique will u use to determine
the confidence level and
the probability of completing the project on a specific day ?
A. PERT formula.
B. Monte carlo simulation.
C. Probability analysis.
D. Varience analysis.
55. Caltural noise in the communication channel can be caused
by all of the following
except?
A. Ethnocentrisim
B. Stereotyping.
C. Decorum.
D. Proximity distance between people.
56. If PV $ 24000 and AC is $27000 and EV is 25000 we can
report the project as follow:
A. Ahead of schedule and over budget .
B. Ahead of schedule and behind
budget.
C. Behind schedule and over
budget.
D. Behind schedule and under
budget.
57. “For Consideration” in contract management means:
A. money must be paid from one
party to another.
B. the contract must be signed.
C. the contract must be agreed to
buy both parties.
D. there must be an exchange of things.
58. The contemporary view of conflict is that :
A. conflict is bad.
B conflict is caused by trouble
maker.
C. conflict should be avoided.
D. conflict is often beneficial.
59. A cost base line is an output of the _____________
management process.
A. Resouce planning
B. Cost eastimating.
C. Cost budgeting.
D. Cost control.
60. Varience analysis , treand analysis and earned value
analysis are tools and technique
used for :
A. Information distribution
B Administrative closure.
C. Quality assurance.
D.Performance reporting.
61. There are a variety of methods to select a projects. Which
of the following is not a
project selection criteria method.
A. Benefit measurement.
B. NPV
C. The number of resources
required to complete the project.
D. Value analysis.
62. You are a junior project manger with a little over 3 years
actual project experience .You
have just started to working on your first international
project.After spending the 3 weeks
in foreign you are feeling very disoriented .This known as :
A. Culture shock.
B. Disorientation.
C. Global culturing.
D. Divercity Shock.
63. A deliverable-oriented grouping of project component is
(n):
A. activity list..
B. work package .
C. WBS
D. cost account coding system.
64. All of the following statement are true of administrative
closure except:
A. It includes verifying and
documenting project results .
B. It includes collection of
project records.
C. It includes analysis of project
success and effectiveness.
D. It should be delayed until project completion.
65. The method for calculating earned value should be agreed to
before the work begins
and it is best to keep the earned value calculation method as
simple as possible.What is
not a method of reporting earned value?
A. Apportioned.
B. Milestone.
C. Level of Effort (LOE)
D. Varience analysis
66.
You are working through the initiation phase of your project for a new client
that
involves opening new operations in 3 new locations. Several of
the functional managers
have very different views on how the project should be managed
and what the deliverable
should be.As the project manager for this project for this
project which of the following is
the best thing for you to do?
A. Ask the client when they will
be in agreement on project requirements.
B. Work with leadership from each area to collaboratively engineer a
mutually acceptable
solution.
C. Make sure the terms and
conditions of the contract are very very clear especially how
changes will be managed.
D. Advice the client they must
reach agreement on both issues within 2 weeks,
Otherwise, the schedule have to be
defferred until they are able to agree as a
67. All program manager have been asked to come up with a new
estimate at completion
for their in-progress project. The most accurate method to
develop the new estimate is to:
A. Complete an earned value
analysis to determine the cost analysis.
B. take the actuals to date and
add the remaining budgets modified by performance factor.
C. take the actuals to date and develop a new estimate for all
remaining work.
D. Add the remaining budget to
what has already been spent.
68. Your next door neighbour is a team member on a project as a
business analyst. She
mentions to you that she had met with her project manager today
to talk about a really
good idea she had for a useful change to the project. She
expresses frustration to you
because she fully expected approval to go ahead with the
change, but instead ,she was
requested to write a report documenting the specific benefit on
the change. As a project
manager yourself what would be the most appropriate response?
A. agree with your neighbour that
the project manager is just being unreasonable since the
benefit documentation is really
the project manager responsibility to.
B. advise your neighbour that the
cost benefit analysis was already completed during project
planning and the project manager
must be inexperienced.
C. Tell her you would ask the same for your team member. PM’s need
to analyze the benefits of
the change vs the cost and compre them to other possible changes.
D. Your neighbour should do what
was asked because this short of information must be given to
the project sponsor to make the
change.
69. Which statement is not true about Maslow’s highest
hierarchy of needs?
A. Constant self-development.
B. Doing what one can do best.
C. Often refuse promotion to management.
D. Realizing what one can do best.
70. Inputs to administrative closure include all of the
following except:
A. performance measurement
documentation.
B. other project records.
C. documentation of the product.
D. contract documentation.
71. From the “view exhibit” button, What is the Late Start day
of activity G?
A. 17
B. 18
C. 10
D. 11
72. Which of the following statement is true?
A. PERT does not show the critical
path but CPM does.
B. Both PERT and CPM are duration estimates.
C. PERT allows for probabilistic sequencing
that CPM can’t provide.
D. CPM provides more accurate
duration estimate than PERT.
73. Your manager gives you a scope of work and ask you to begin
work immediately and
provide her with a schedule. What should you do first?
A. Begin estimating the task
necessary to complete the scope of work.
B. Identify the stake holders and make sure their requirements are
included in the scope of work.
C. Create an activity list and
then begin to assign the task to resources.
D. Identify a team and obtain
approval for their participation from their functional managers.
74. Expert judgement will often be required to access the input
of initiation , Such
expertise may be provided by any group or individual with
specialized knowledge or
training and is available from many sources ,including the
following.
A. other units within the
organization ,consultant ,and internet.
B. industry group, stake holders ,
and lesion learned from previous objects.
C. Consultant, Stake holders and industry groups.
D. Other project managers and
professionals.
75. Quality controls includes a number of activities and
technique within a project that
ensure that the organization quality’s objective are being met
.Which of the following is
not considered part of the quality control process.
A. quality audits.
B. continually monitoring process.
C. identifying and eliminating
problem causes.
D. use of statistical process
control to reduce process variability and increase efficency.
76. The tools and technique in the contract admin process are :
A. contract change control system, performance reporting , and
payment system.
B. contract change control system,
contract negotiations, and payment system.
C. contract change control system,
contract negotiations ,and contract changes.
D. contract change control system,
payment system , and payment requests.
77. Risk monitoring and control involves all of the following
task except:
A. identifying new risks.
B. ensuring the execution of risk
plans.
C. evaluating and execution of
risk plans.
D. Cotingency planning.
78. Which earned value formula correctly illustrate the cost
varience of a project
incurrency?
A. BCWP-ACWP
B. BCWP/ACWP
C. ACWP-BCWP
D. BCWP/BCWS
79. Due to bankruptcy reason ,your current vendor has been
forced to withdraw from your
project. your purchasing department has now informed you the
new vendor has been
selected, approved and the resources will be arriving on the
site ,first thing next Monday.
As the project manager what is the first thing you should do on
Monday?
A. Have the core team on site so
you can introduce the new vendor to the project team.
B .Establish yourself as the authority in charge.
C. Arrange for a tour of the site
for the new vendor.
D. Review the contract details
with the vendor to ensure common understanding.
80. Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project
is prepared and distributed
during the ____________ process.
A. administrative closeout.
B. organizational planning.
C. performance reporting.
D. contract admin.
81. Considerable time has been spent negotiating the contract
between both the vendor
and the purchaser over the last 7 months .Today is suppose to
be the last meeting to
finalize one outstanding issue. At this meeting emotions are
now at an all time high, when
out of the blue ,the vendor starts to pack her briefcase to
leave. What type of negotiating
strategy is the vendor using in this situation.
A. Missing man
B. Fair and reasonable.
C. Deadline.
D. Withdral.
82. As the project manager which of the following documents
will you use to ensure
project closure?
A. Project presentations.
B. Trend analysis.
C. Change requests.
D. Document that describe the product of the project.
83. What is the most effective document to review to learn
about the project’s procedure
for managing risk?
A. a risk management plan.
B. a project plan
C. a risk analysis plan
D. a risk assessment study.
84. Which of the following is a definition of liquidated
damages?
A. Damages intended to compensate
the injured party for his or her loss.
B. Damages intended to punish the
wrongdoer.
C. Damages where the amount is specified in the contract.
D. Damages, which are consequences
of your actions ,rather than a direct result of your action.
85. Which of the following activities is not a part of
administrative closure?
A. Generating information.
B. Procurement audit.
C. Gathering information.
D. Disseminating information.
86. Status meeting are held to:
A. have team members report on
what they are doing?
B. exchange information about the project.
C. issue work authorizations.
D. confirm the accuracy of the
cost submitted by the team.
87. Which of the following is not a output of the cost control
process?
A. Revised cost estimates.
B. Budget updates.
C. Workarounds.
D. Estimate and completion.
88. Labour rate is calculated by :
A. aggregating the various cost associated with direct labour and
divide by the numbers of man
hours worked.
B. taking the employee cost for
the company as a whole,and dividing by the number of
employees.
C. allocating $10,000 per employee
and dividing by the number of hours in a year.
D. taking the cash received by
each employee as salary and dividing by number of hours
worked.
89. You are reviewing several contracts to determine the earned
value techniques to be
used for performing reporting. One of the contracts scope of
work contains a repetitive
process. Since this contracts entails 70%of the total project
work, which earned value
reporting technique would be the best to use?
A. Apportioned.
B. Line of Balance (LOB)
C. 50/50
D. Milestone
90. At the PMI networking member meeting, you chat with another
project manager on
different methods to highlight risks on your current project.
The very next day you receive
a zip file in your email a risk software from the project
manager that was developed in her
company. The software has a copy right date of 2000.As a PMP
what action should you
take in this situation.
A. Meet with the PMO and see if
they believe this would be a good method.
B. Obtain approval to use the
software from your legal department.
C. share some of your ideas on
improvement on the software with her.
D. Return the software.
91. One of the project team members meet with you as the
project manager during
project execution. He advices you several of the team members
believe the project cannot
meet its quality standards. Your action to this information is
to call a meeting of the
effected stake holders to walk through the problem. Which step
of the quality management
process are you involved in?
A. Quality Assurance
B. Quality analysis
C. Quality control.
D. Quality planning.
92. The project manager typically share problems with you and
the team and prepares
evaluating solution as a group. Which type of leadership style
is your project manager
using?
A. Autocratic.
B. Consultation in a group.
C. Consensuas
D. Oneto one consultation.
93. As a seasoned project manager, you have come to understand
the importance of
communication and network. During your annual performance
appraisal, your senior
project manager writes “aggressive insight” on the comment
section of the performance
appraisal form. What does he mean by that comment?
A. He believes you understand the
machines of power and politics.
B. He recognizes that you “ do the
right thing” when it comes to the member of your team.
C. He believes you understand your own strength and weakness.
D. He believes you understand the
strength and weakness of your project team.
94. Management had decided to crash a project in order to avoid
penalty payments for late
deliveries. Additional cost are expected. To crash the project
either overtime or additional
resources should be assigned to:
A. all activities.
B. activities with the longest
time duration.
C. activities on the critical path beginning with the longest time
duration activities.
D. activities with the greatest
degree of risk.
95. Facilitating and core process differ in that core are
sequential in nature facilitating are
intermittent and dependent on the type of project.What are not
on the facilitating process?
A. Scope change control and
quality assurance.
B. Scope verification and
procurement planning.
C. Contract administration and
communication planning.
D. None of the above are core process.
96. In which stage of the negotiation meeting is party
determining their strength and
weakness?
A. Scratch bargaining
B. Agreement.
C. Protocol.
D. Probing.
97. Which of the following diagram supports only one
relationship?
A. activity on arrow.
B. PERT.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Activity-on –node.
98. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for cost
control?
A. Computerized tool.
B. Cost of quality
C. Additional planning
D. Performance measurement.
99. What is a “Should Cost” estimate?
A. Any estimate used in project
budget.
B. An estimate prepared to check prices submitted by a seller.
C. An estimate of prices prepared by
the seller for the buyer.
D. A list of costs included as an
appendix to a contract.
100. There are a multitude of consequences if we do not risk
management such as :
significant cost overruns; schedule delays; inability to
achieve stated technical objective
(s); project descoping; fines and penalties etc. What are the
downsides or negative to
doing risk management?
A. Believe that all risk has been
accounted for?
B. Project could be shut down
C. Team conflict.
D. Both A and B are correct.
101. As a vendor you are participating in a bidders conference
for a potential new client. It
is clear to you the buyer has not clearly defined the full
scope of work just yet. What type
of would you be most concerned about negotiating with the
client.
A. Fixed price.
B. Cost plus fixed fee.
C. Time and material.
D. Fixed price with incentive fee.
102. Not all stake holders are equal .It is helpful to identify
and classify the type of
stakeholders and clearly define roles and responsibility of
each group of stakeholders. It
is important to define who provides input, who votes on what
issues , and who has vote
power. Which of the following best describe why stakeholders
are necessary in a project?
A. They determine the project
schedule , deliverable, and requirements.
B. Stakeholder /customer satisfaction is the number one success
criteria.
C. They supply the resources and
resource constraint on the project.
D. They help provide assumption ,
the WBS ,the management plan.
103. The quality team for the project consists of several
groups. Which of the following
project participant plays the most important role in the
quality function?
A. Customer .
B. Project manager.
C. Project team.
D. Vendors and supplier.
104. Earned value can best be defined as:
A. BCWP time ACWP.
B. A method of ensuring project performance.
C. A method of tracking project
costs.
D. SPI/CPI.
105. As part of project to establish a large vegetable growing
operation for a food
processing plant ,You are required to do several soil samples
at the designated
agricultural site. At the next PM meeting you must present your
findings from the soil
samples. You have received from the testing lab, the results
from almost 80% of the soil
samples but there is approximately 20% of the sample results
still missing. Since you
actually did a few more soil samples than was initially
required , You will:
A. Prepare a report based on the
information you did receive.
B. Inform the customer that you
need more time to redo the missing soil samples.
C. Prepare a report based on the information you did receive but
included a statement regarding
the missing soil samples.
D. Ask management to postpone the
project meeting so you have time to redo the missing soil
samples.
106. Resource planning results in a description of what type of
resources are required in
what quantities. This plan is then used to support the
subsequent process.
A. of cost estimating or
budgeting.
B. of scheduling or controlling.
C. of staff acquisition and/or procurement.
D. of plan execution or cost
controlling.
107. As project manager for a new communication project ,you
received a PM services
proposal which includes curriculum vitae for someone whom you
have some knowledge
of. This CV indicates that the individual has a PMP although
you know that it is not true.
Do you :
A. advise your superior of the
false information.
B. advise PMI of the false
information.
C. advise the individual of the
mistake in the CV.
D. A and B.
108. Generally speaking the detail and frequency of performance
speaking increases:
A. For executive management.
B. When risk increases.
C. With contractors.
D. With team members.
109. Destructive team roles includes which of the following?
A. Topic jumper, Devil’s advocate
and information seeker.
B. Dominator, Recognition seeker
and initiator.
C. Withdrawer Initiator and
Aggressor.
D. Withdrawer ,Topic jumper and recognition seeker.
110. An advantage of decentralized contracting is :
A. The contract is a appropriate
to project.
B. The contract follows
appropriate guideline.
C. More focus on the contracts,
therefore less mistakes.
D. The project manager has more control.
111. What is the Seller’s risk objective in Project procurement
Management?
A. to get the highest dollar value
contracts.
B. to minimize risk while maximizing profit potential.
C. to maximize risk so that
profits are higher.
D. to minimize risk.
112. When communicating the sender is responsible for:
A. Scheduling communicating
exchange.
B. Ensuring the receiver agrees
with the message.
C. Confirming message is understood.
D. Presenting the message in the
most favourable manner.
113. A firm fixed contract is one that is:
A. The firm is guaranteeing a
fixed price.
B. The contract is fixed by the
government authority .
C. A lump-sum contract under which the seller furnishes goods or
service at a fixed price.
D. The price of the Seller’s
services are fixed on an hourly basis.
114. Which of the 7 main statistical processing charts
determines possible cause of
potential problems and actual problems?
A. flow charts.
B. a fishbone diagram.
C. a control chart.
D. Scatter diagrams.
115. All of the following are cost estimating tools except:
A. alternative identification.
B. analogus
C. bottom-up.
D. parametric.
116. The project is formally initiated or authorized to
continue when:
A. the budget is assigned.
B. the project manager is
appointed.
C. the charter is completed.
D. B and C.
117. Which is not used as a tool and technique for information
gathering during the risk
identification process?
A. SWOT.
B. Delphi.
C. Interviewing.
D. Simulation.
118. General management encompasses:
A. Planning, organizing, Stuffing, executing and controlling the
operation of an ongoing
enterprise.
B. Business policy ,financial
management, business economics, contract administration , and
legal services necessary for operating
an enterprise.
C. Business strategy ,planning and
controlling, organizational behaviour , procurement and
personal administration required
for managing the ongoing aspect of a
D. Organizational development,
staffing, marketing and sales ,procurement, and contract
administration as part of an
ongoing organization.
119. Project Management is the art and science of converting
abstract into concrete or
vision in reality. The realization can be most effective
through formula understanding of
project management process. What are the 5 management process?
A. Conceptualize plan, execute,
control, and close-out.
B. Initiate ,plan, execute,
control, and finish.
C. Initiate, plan, execute, control, and close-out.
D. Initiate, plan ,
implementation, control, and close-out.
120. All of the following statements concerning project
stakeholders are true except?
A. Difference should be resolved
in favour of the customer whenever possible.
B. Managing stakeholder
expectation may be difficult because stakeholders do not have very
different stage objectives that
may come into conflict.
C. Project stakeholder may
influence the course of the project and its result .
D. Key stakeholders are senior management.
121. The difference between an activity’s schedule completion
and actual completion is
called:
A. earned value.
B. schedule variance.
C. schedule performance index.
D. Budget variance.
122. From the “view exhibit “ button how many days of float
does activity G have?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 10
D. 7
123. Project performance is impacted by 4 basic cultures. Which
of the following is not
one of the 4 basic culture?
A. leadership.
B. world.
C. business.
D. international.
124. Which of the following are not categorized as Herzberg’s
hygiene factors?
A. Working condition and salaries
.
B. Security and relationship at
work.
C. Personal life and working
conditions.
D. Recognition and responsibility.
125. You are writing a document identifying the business need
for a project which includes
a description of the product to be created by the project and
high level objectives and
goals .What is your role in the project?
A. The project manager for the
project.
B. A member of the project core
team working at the direction of the project manager.
C. The sponsor.
D. The manager or executive in the organization who is higher in the
corporate organization than
the project manager.
126. Aids in staff acquisition do not include:
A. staffing management plan.
B. a team directory.
C. training.
D. negotiation.
127. As the project manager you send out a weekly report to the
team identifying exact to
the day where the project stands. What type of report you are
communicating to the team?
A. progress report.
B. status report.
C. forecast report.
D. variance report.
128. The closing progress includes :
A. generating, gathering, disseminating information to formalize
phase or project completion.
B. Collecting and disseminating
performance information.
C. completing and settling
contracts and excluding the resolutions of any open items.
D. Ensuring the project will satisfy
the needs for which it was undertaken.
129. The major process in project integration do not include:
A. Project plan development.
B. Integrated change control.
C. Activity sequencing.
D. Project plan execution.
130. The PMI officer resolution has just filled final
resolution regarding a grievance against
you. Can you appeal?
A. You may appeal the officer’s
final resolution within 10 days.
B. You may appeal the officer’s
final resolution within 30days.
C. A resolution by the officer can not be appealed.
D. an appeal may be presented only
if the “grievant “ withdraws the grievance.
131. What is meant by the phrase” The fundamental principal of
proportionate
expenditure must never be violated when selecting management
and mitigation
strategies”?
A. In other words don’t throw $1,000 solution at a $100 problem.
B. Ensure there is sufficient
management reserve for high impact risks.
C. Ensure there is sufficient
management reserve for high impact and high probability risks.
D. Ensure there is sufficient
contingency reserve for both high impact and high probblity risks.
132. What is not a true statement about Risk?
A. A single event risk may cause
several effects as when a late delivery of a computer system
produce costs overruns, schedule
delays ,and reduced morale.
B. Most risks are more likely to
occur in the early stages of a project as most risks ,have not
surfaced and the requirements and
designs are still changing.
C. Later in the project life
cycle, there are fewer risks but often if they occur , they can have a
significant impact.
D. Risk planning is reactive.
133. what is Buyer’s risk objective in Project Procurement
Management?
A. to place maximum performance risk on their seller while
maintaining incentive for economic
performance.
B. to pay the least amount of
money.
C. to get a quality supplier.
D. to minimize risk.
134. What is the meaning of ‘ethnocentriisim’?
A. The acceptance of another
culture.
B. The awareness of another
culture but not necessarily the acceptance of that culture.
C. The acceptance of another
culture as a function of doing business internationally.
D. The believe that your own culture is superior.
135. You are teaching a class of junior project leaders the
benefit of calculating and
understanding schedule variance(SV).Your class is using the
following value to determine
the ‘health’ of project. PV=$220,000 EV= 200,000, AC=280,000.
According to your analysis the SV and hence the status of the
project is:
A. $20,000 the project is ahead of
schedule.
B. -$20,000 the project is behind schedule.
C. -$80,000 the project is behind
of schedule.
D. $60,000 the project is behind
of schedule.
136. As, the customer you have decided the contract out a scope
of work that you are not
able to define very well. You plan to be “hands on” and
actively participate with your own
forces during the performance of the work. Of the following
contracts type, which would
be the preferred contract type to select under this scenario?
A. CPPC
B. FFIF.
C. CPIF.
D. CPFF.
137. Customer risk is highest with:
A. Firm fixed price contracts.
B. Cost plus incentive fees.
C. Cost sharing.
D. Fixed price plus incentives.
138. According to standard statistical control rules if the
data result reflect 7 consecutive
data points on either side of the mean, this tells you:
A. that the process is out of
control.
B. that the process is in control.
C. that there is an abnormal trend which bears investigations.
D. that the process is cyclical.
139. A histogram that is order by frequency of occurrence and
shows how many results
were generated by type or identified cause is called a :
A. Statistical control chat.
B. Ishikawa diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Cause –and effect diagram.
140. In a matrix organization, both the functional and project
manager shares certain
responsibilities. Which of the following is not a
responsibility of the project manager?
A. Complete task definition.
B. Resource requirement
definitions.
C. Major timetable milestones.
D. personnel performance measurements.
141. What is unilateral contract?
A. a contract that has only one signature.
B. a purchase order.
C. a RFQ
D. a sealed bid.
142. What is one of the ways that a contract typically does not
end?
A. Successful performance .
B. Mutual agreement.
C. breach.
D. extension.
143. Administrative closure includes all the following expert:
A. documentation of lesson
learned.
B. verifying records including
final; specification.
C. formal written notice to the contractor of project completion.
D. a collection of project
reports.
144. A playground fencing project was FPQ’d at $6 per foot. The
play area has 4 equal
side of 125 feet each and first requires the installation of 2
round cement posts for
decorative purposes. 100 feet of fencing can be ereected per
day once the cement posts
are installed. The 2 cement posts costs $250 to install and
take oneday for both to be
installed. At the end of day three one side of the fence and
2/3 second side have been
completed , What is the current status of the project?
A. the budget is on target with a 0 schedule variance.
B. It is behind schedule with a
schedule variance of -$750.
C. It is under budget , with a
cost variance of $500 with the completion of the cement posts.
D. It is over budget with a cost
variance of $-500.
145. Which of the following is not aid in achieving consensuas?
A. avoiding conflict.
B. mantaining a focus on the
problem not each other.
C. avoiding self-oriented
behaviour.
D. Seeking facts.
146. Project manager must carefully select the appropriate mode
when managing conflict
.Which of the following modes provide resolution when managing
conflict ?
A. withdrawal, smoothing.
B. compromising, forcing.
C. forcing, problem solving.
D. withdrawal, problem solving.
147. During communications the sender is not responsible for:
A. Clarity.
B. Unambiguousness.
C. Completeness of message.
D. Correctness of understanding.
148. Which is not a tool or technique used in the quantitative
risk analysis process?
A. interviewing.
B. SWOT analysis.
C. Sensitivity analysis.
D. Simulation.
149. Each project life cycle phase can act as a control point
to measure progress and
determine if the project should continue (go/no go decision
).These control points are
called ______________.
A. Phase exit.
B. kill point.
C. Stage gate.
D. all of the above.
150. Given the following set of data: 40 20,20,50,70 and 75:
what is the median?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 45
D. 20
151. Which of the following are not example of barriers?
A. idea killers and negative
positioning.
B. devil’s advocate and cultural
differences.
C. amount of information, project jargon ,and terminology.
D. lack of subject knowledge and ”
its never been done before”.
152. Internal rate of return is:
A. The present values of all cash
flows.
B. The net present values of all
cash flows.
C. The interest rate that equates the present value of expected
future net cash inflows to the
initial cost outlet.
D. the interest rate that equates
all future cash inflows to zero.
153. Several months ago you completed an intranet design
website project .This intranet
site houses sensitive company data and high –security access is
crucial. You are now
working on another high security project and you notice what
appears to be a flaw or hole
‘in ‘ the security code. However the access sequence is so
obscure that you are certain no
one has been able to break security yet. What should you do?
A. Keep the discovery to yourself
but monitor the situation incase something does occur.
B. Alert your senior manager and ask that someone immediately
confirm your findings.
C. Have someone immediately repair
the perceived security flow.
D. Alter the security team.
154.When the expected cash flow S-curve is above the cost
performance baseline?
A. no corrective action is
required since the baseline cost exceeds the expected costs.
B. corrective action is required
since the baseline cost exceeds the expected costs.
C. corrective action is required
since the expected cost exceeds the expected costs.
D. no corrective action is required since the expected cost exceeds
the expected costs.
155. In general the following statements are true about a
project , except when it is:
A. is directed as achieving a
specific result.
B. has a limited duration-
beginning and end.
C. involves the co-ordinated
undertaking of interrelated activities.
D. is repeatable.
156. The graphic displays of results over time ,of a process
used to determine the states
are called:
A. Fishbone diagram.
B. control chats.
C. Pareto chats
D. Histograms.
157. Formal acceptance of a project can be described when:
A. The project is almost complete.
B. Customer signoff the product is documented .
C. Final payment is made .
D. Contract documentation is
approved.
158. From the “view exhibit” button , how many days of free
float does activity H have?
A. 0
B. 8
C. 2
D. 12
159. Which of the represents the different channels of communication?
A. Problem solving and compromise.
B. Compromise and confrontation.
C. Upward, downward, and lateral.
D. memos, status reports , and
rumors.
160. One of the 9 “ilities” or attributes of qualities is
“Availability”. Availability means the
probability of a product being capable of performing a required
function under the
specified condition when called upon. The key parts to
availability are:
A. reliability and maintainability.
B. reliability and flexibility.
C. maintainability and
flexibility.
D. produciblity and operability.
161. Which is not a true statement about the 5 project process
group?
A. Concerned with describing and
organizing the work of the project.
B. Linked by the product they
produce.
C. Concerned with specifying and creating the product of the
project.
D. Executed of the project as a
whole , and for each phase within the PLC.
162. Every culture is governed by five fundamental dimensions.
Which of the following is
not one of those dimensions?
A. Information flow.
B. language.
C. Sense of time.
D. Sense of ownership.
163. Project managers working in successful ,projectized
environments believe that
spend what percentage of their time on communications?
A. 30-45%
B. 45-60%
C. 60-75%
D. 75-90%
164.Which of the following is an example of the cost of
conformance to quality?
A. Supports call.
B. Training.
C. Scrap.
D. Warranty costs.
165. Your risk analysis involving your project scope reflects
your project has an 70%
chance of completing the scope by a specified date with an 80%
chance of receving
approval for the scope by a certain date. Based on this data ,
what is the probability of
both events occurring?
A. 0.75
B. 0.8
C.0.5
D. 0.56
166. A driver’s license is required by law before an individual
can drive a car .Similarly
the project manager requires a ____________ document in order
to plan, execute and
control a project.
A. Scope statement.
B. Project budget.
C. Project charter.
D. WBS.
167. The change control board is _____________.
A. A required part of every
project.
B. not formally constituted but the idea is important.
C. Varies in size from project to
project.
D. an impediment to getting work
done.
168. Your quality control team leader has advice you, the
latest control chart data reflects
that last 7 books produced were outside the lower control
limit. What action should you
take as the project manager on this training?
A. Stop the printing of the books.
B. Work with the production team
to bring the future printing within the control limits.
C. Look for the non-random causes
for the variations.
D. Plan to fix the 7 books.
169. According to the study conducted by Thamhein and Wilemon ,
which of the following
are the top 3 sources of conflict in order of frequency of
occurrence during the initiation
phase?
A. project priorities, administrative procedures and schedules.
B. Project priorites , schedules ,
and cost issues.
C. administrative procedure,
schedules and costs.
D. schedules , technical issues ,
and administrative procedures.
170. Which is not a true statement regarding “influence dd
diagram”?
A. It is simple visual
representation of a decision problem.
B. It provides an intuitive way to
identify and display the essential elements, including decisions,
uncertainties, and objectives and
how they influence each other.
C. They are essentially
qualitative.
D. They are essentially quantitative.
171. Manual activity sequencing is most effective in the
planning of :
A. large project with an abundance
of detail.
B. Small projects.
C. High value projects.
D. low-priority projects.
172. Which of the following are the only costs that appear in
project contract?
A. direct.
B. indirect.
C. variable.
D. semi variable.
173. Scope verification is primarily concerned with:
A. Quality assurance.
B. Quality control.
C. Status of work result.
D. acceptance of results.
174. When distributing information, the total message impact on
the sender is as follows:
A. 20% words, 35% vocal tones and
45% body language.
B. 10% words, 60%vocal tones and
30% body language.
C. 7% words, 38 % vocal tones and 55%body language.
D. 7%words,55%vocal tones, and 38%
body language.
175. In earned value terms the “CAP” represents the:
A. Control account plan.
B. Cost account plan.
C. Command account plan.
D. Criteria analysis plan.
176. Comparative approaches ,scoring models and benefit
contribution are all part of :
A. Constrained optimization models
for selecting a project.
B. Benefit measurement model for selecting a project.
C. Cost estimating technique.
D. quality control technique.
177. At a project meeting, you realize that your client has
mistakenly assumed that the
PMP designation includes professional engineering
qualifications. He has asked that
certain drawing be modified slightly at the meeting and then
sent immediately to
production. Your engineering partners approved and stamped the
drawings prior to the
meeting but are not present. What should you do?
A. To avoid delays, modify the
drawings as the client requests and forward engineers approved
revisions as soon as possible.
B. Modify the drawings as the
client requests , forward revision as soon as possible, review the
intent of the PMP designation and
indicate the engineer approved
C. Review the intent of the PMP and explain that your engineering
team will review ,revise and
issue the drawings as soon as possible.
D. Refuse to make the change ,as a
change at this stage of the project would compromise the
timeline which is the priority
constraint.
178. Which of the following is the most key element of
contract?
A. Offer.
B. Acceptance.
C. Performance.
D. Exchange.
179. The seller can play all but_____________ when the seller
breaches the contract
A. Consequential damages.
B. Liquidated damages .
C. Punitive damages.
D. Compensatory damages.
180. In your role as a contract project manager ,you are asked
to review the plans and
satisfactions for a new product for company A. Representatives
of technical publication
have asked you to write a paper on industry and product trends
in the same field in which
company A operates. How should you proceed?
A. Write the article but leverage
only high level information from company A.
B. Write the article.
C. Write the article and name
company A as a reference in your paper.
D. Consult the intellectual property clause of your contract and
consult your employer prior to
leveraging any information from company A.
181. One of the 3” responsibilities to the profession” found in
the code of professional
conduct states that you must adhere to candidate/certificant
professional practices.This
means that:
A. You must maintain and respect
the confidentiality of sensitive information obtained in the
course of professional activity.
B. You must ensure that a conflict
of interest does not compromise legitimate interest of client or
customer.
C. You must recognize and respect
intellectual property developed or owned by others.
D. You must provide accurate , truthful advertising and
representation concerning qualifications,
experience, and performance of services.
182. You can ____________ the opportunities and___________ risk
the most during the
____________ stage.
A. minimize, maximize ,closeout.
B. maximize, minimize, concept .
C. maximize, minimize, closeout .
D. enhance, minimize, concept.
183. Qualitative risk analysis is the process of assessing the
impact and likelihood of
identified risks. What is not true about this process?
A. The process should be revisited
during the project life cycle to stay current with changes in the
project’s risks.
B. The process evaluates the
quality of the risk information available.
C. The process determines the importance
of a addressing and planning response for specific
risks and their time criticality.
D. The process provides detailed information, such as probability of
achieving objectives.
184. In a team meeting ,two team members are arguing intently
and their voices are
starting to get louder. As the project manager you step into
manage the conflict by
pointing out the part of conflict that they both agree to in a
gentle tone. What type of
conflict management are you deploying?
A. Smoothing.
B. Consensus.
C. Problem solving.
D. Compromising.
185. One of your co-workers and long time friend has left the
organization. He calls and
ask you to send him a list of common project deliverables. He
would also like the copies
of the templates associated with each. What do you do?
A. Send him only the list but not
the templates.
B. Send him both the list and the
templates since neither contains confidential company data .
C. Send him nothing but point him to a good reference book found in
PMI’s online bookstore.
D. Send him nothing and report the
incident to your supervisor.
186. All of the following are characteristics of “Discretionary
Dependencies” except:
A. also known as “Best practices”.
B. can be referred to as” soft
logic”.
C. Often involve physical limitations.
D. Should be documented.
187. Globalization had led to the need for project managers to
develop new skills. To have
a successful international project , project manager must:
A. be available to fly frequently
to the project site if it is in a foreign country.
B. be fluent in many foreign
languages.
C. Study and address cultural aspects of the project.
D. budget for bribes that may be
required to be paid during planning and execution.
188. Supplier risk is highest with ___________.
A. Firm fixed price contract.
B. Cost plus incentives fee.
C. Cost sharing.
D. Fixed price plus incentives.
189. There is money remaining in your project budget at
completion. You are pleased as
there is another piece of work with the customer on the
horizon. Your customer suggests
that you and he uses the remaining funds to review the results
while visiting a weekend
resort. He states that his wife will be accompanying him and
suggest that your spouse
also attends. He indicates that you should charge the
expenditure under administrative
closeout.
A. Accept the offer and tell your
spouse to for a weekend away.
B. Agree to participate in the
weekend but insist on paying for your spouse.
C. Agree to participate but
suggest that neither spouse should be subsidized by the project
funds.
D. Decline the offer and schedule the review at the office or at a
local alternative place of
business.
190. You are competing for a new contract that is triple the
value of your current contract.
At your interview , you are asked to draw on your previous 2
years of work experiences to
explain critical success factors on an effective software
development cycle. The
interviewer’s are familiar with parties you may have worked
with and specifically ask who
have worked with at two companies. You did not choose names
from either of the
companies mentioned for your reference list .How should you
reply?
A. Provide the names as requested.
B. Provides the names but ask that
the interviewers not contract those you have name until you
call back with the okay.
C. State that you don’t recall the
names of the individuals.
D. Suggest that you can provide additional references after
receiving approval from the
individuals to use their names.
191. One of the project selection criteria is the benefit cost
ratio. One potential project you
are reviewing has a BCR of 1.22. This indicates that:
A. payback is 1.22 months.
B. payback is $1.22 for every dollar expanded.
C. cost is 1.22 more than the
anticipated profit.
D. Cost are greater than the
anticipated benefits.
192. You attend an executive presentation at your office. Your
project manager presents a
maturity model that is identical to a tool you both learned of
at a recent conference. She
describes the model as the corporate model her team has
developed. The executive
request that you email the presentation to them. What should
you do?
A. interrupt your manager’s
presentation and give credit to the original author.
B. After the meeting, remind your manager of the copy right. Suggest
containing the author for
permission to use the model of leveraging ideas to create a custom.
C. Support your manager by
reinforcing the importance of the benefit of the models to the
executive.
D. Contract the original author
and advise them of your Manager’s actions. Email them a copy of
the slides for confirmation.
193. From the “View exhibit “ button ,which activity list
contains the critical path for the
project.
A. ABCFGHL.
B. ABCDEL.
C. ABCDEFGL.
D. ABCIJKL.
194. You have been asked to coordinate the visit of a number of
key stakeholders to a
project site in foreign country. Your local contract advices
that you must pay a per-person
fee to arrange for efficient processing through the airport
security checks. One member of
the delegation has concurred that this is necessary based on
previous experience. What
if any, steps should you take prior to making the payment?
A. Reduce the size of the
delegation to avoid the unbudgeted, aided cost.
B. Confirm that the transaction is legitimate not a bribe.
C. Refuse to make the payment.
D. Investigate the situation upon
arrival at the airport.
195. You have developed a very positive , informal relationship
with your client. Over
coffee, your clients indicates that his company is about to
benefit from a very large multi
million dollar contracts. He speculates that the stock price
will jump up the day after
tomorrow. At a social event , you learn that your manager’s
wife who has invested in the
company previously ask you how things are going and what the
future prospects might
be. What do you tell her?
A. Share the details of your
conversation with the client. And recommended that now may be a
good time to invest.
B. Suggest that she have your
manager, her husband, contract your client directly to talk about
the company’s potential.
C. Advise your manager’s wife that you must honour and maintain the
confidentiality and privacy
of your client and client information.
D. Tell her that you have no idea
how the company is doing financially as you are concerned as
with the specifics of the
projects.
196 A control chart for a major project process shows that
seven consecutive data points
of the nine sample averages are above the process average
within the control limits.
What is indicated by the phenomenon?
A. The process average is moving
to the upper values and needs to be corrected.
B. No action is required because
the points are still within the control limits.
C. The process is out of control
and should be investigated.
D. This is consider abnormal behavior and should be investigated.
197. From the “view exhibit” button , Which task(s) have a CPI
over budget?
A. Task 2 only.
B. Task 3 and 4.
C. Task 3 and 2.
D. Task 1 and 2.
198. What is incorrect, or the least true statement about a
benefit /cost analysis?
A. It should be performed again
during project execution using the EAC projections.
B. It should use present value
techniques.
C. Never looks beyond the end of
the project.
D. It should only be performed again after a project is started
using the original data.
199. From the “view exhibit” what would the best statement be
about the overall project
performance?
A. We are tracking slightly behind schedule and under budget more
than 10%.
B. We are tracking slightly behind
schedule and are right on target with the budget.
C. We are right on schedule and a
little over the budget.
D. We are tracking slightly behind
the schedule and a little over the budget.
200. You are under pressure to release a new version of
software program to avoid serious
cash penalties and loss of market share. Two days before the
targeted release date, a
developer brings a potential bug to your attention .Although
the developer and a test
engineer have been unable to re-create the bug, the feature in
question is critical to
meeting legal requirements dictated by the governing regulatory
body responsible for
public safety. What should you do?
A. Postpone the release date.
B. Re-assemble the test team and
continue the testing until the bug is detected and corrected.
C. Re-assemble the test team and continue testing. Develop potential
scenarios and advise the
appropriate stakeholders of the recommended course of action.
D. Release the software and add
the item to the list of issues to be addressed by the next patch
or release.
